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NEW QUESTION 1
Which statement is correct about IP-IP tunnels?
A. IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating IP traffic.
B. IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating non-IP traffic.
C. The TTL in the inner packet is decremented during transit to the tunnel endpoint.
D. There are 24 bytes of overhead with IP-IP encapsulation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
IP-IP tunnels are a type of tunnels that use IP as both the encapsulating and encapsulated protocol. IP-IP tunnels are simple and easy to configure, but they do not provide any security or authentication features. IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating IP traffic, which means that the payload of the inner packet must be an IP packet. IP-IP tunnels cannot encapsulate non-IP traffic, such as Ethernet frames or MPLS labels.
– Option A is correct, because IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating IP traffic.
– Option B is incorrect, because IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating non-IP traffic.
– Option C is incorrect, because the TTL in the inner packet is not decremented during transit to the tunnel endpoint. The TTL in the outer packet is decremented by each router along the path, but the TTL in the inner packet is preserved until it reaches the tunnel endpoint.
– Option D is incorrect, because there are 20 bytes of overhead with IP-IP encapsulation. The overhead consists of the header of the outer packet, which has a fixed size of 20 bytes for IPv43.
NEW QUESTION 2
What is the maximum allowable MTU size for a default GRE tunnel without IPv4 traffic fragmentation?
A. 1496 bytes
B. 1480 bytes
C. 1500 bytes
D. 1476 bytes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The maximum allowable MTU size for a default GRE tunnel without IPv4 traffic fragmentation is 1476 bytes. This is because GRE packets are formed by the addition of the original packets and the required GRE headers. These headers are 24-bytes in length and since these headers are added to the original frame, depending on the original size of the packet we may run into IP MTU problems. The most common IP MTU is 1500-bytes in length (Ethernet). When the tunnel is created, it deducts the 24-bytes it needs to encapsulate the passenger protocols and that is the IP MTU it will use1. For example, if we are forming a tunnel over FastEthernet (IP MTU 1500) the IOS calculates the IP MTU on the tunnel as: 1500-bytes from Ethernet – 24-bytes for the GRE encapsulation = 1476-Bytes.
NEW QUESTION 3
You are troubleshooting a BGP routing issue between your network and a customer router and are reviewing the BGP routing policies. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Export policies are applied to routes in the RIB-ln table.
B. Import policies are applied to routes in the RIB-Local table.
C. Import policies are applied after the RIB-ln table.
D. Export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
In BGP, routing policies are used to control the flow of routing information between BGP peers. Option C suggests that import policies are applied after the RIB-In table. This is correct because import policies in BGP are applied to routes that are received from a BGP peer, before they are installed in the local BGP Routing Information Base (RIB-In). The RIB-In is a database that stores all the routes that are received from all peers. Option D suggests that export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table. This is correct because export policies in BGP are applied to routes that are being advertised to a BGP peer, after they have been selected from the local BGP Routing Information Base (RIB-Local). The RIB-Local is a database that stores all the routes that the local router is using. Therefore, options C and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION 4
You deployed a new EX Series switch with DHCP snooping enabled and you do not see any entries in the snooping databases for an interface. Which two Juniper configurations for that interface caused this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is configured as a disabled port.
B. MAC limiting is enabled on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as a trunk port.
D. Dynamic ARP inspection is enabled on the interface.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
– A is correct because the interface is configured as a disabled port. A disabled port does not forward any traffic, including DHCP packets. Therefore, DHCP snooping cannot learn any MAC addresses or lease information from a disabled port.
– C is correct because the interface is configured as a trunk port. By default, all trunk ports on the switch are trusted for DHCP snooping. This means that DHCP snooping does not inspect or filter any DHCP packets received on a trunk port. Therefore, DHCP snooping does not add any entries to the snooping database for a trunk port.
NEW QUESTION 5
Which two BGP attributes must be supported by all BGP implementations and must be included in every update? (Choose two.)
A. AS path
B. MED
C. next hop
D. community
Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP attributes are properties that BGP uses for route advertisement, path selection, and loop prevention. There are four categories of BGP attributes:
– Well-known mandatory: Must be recognized by all BGP routers, present in all BGP updates, and passed on to other BGP routers.
– Well-known discretionary: Supported by all BGP implementations, and are optionally included in BGP updates.
– Optional transitive: May not be supported by all implementations of BGP.
– Optional non-transitive: May not be supported by all implementations of BGP.
The well-known mandatory attributes must be supported by all BGP implementations and must be included in every update. These include the AS path and next hop attributes. Therefore, options A and C are correct.
NEW QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the default VLAN on Juniper switches? (Choose two.)
A. The default VLAN is set to a VLAN ID of 1 by default.
B. The default VLAN ID is not assigned to any interface.
C. The default VLAN ID is not visible.
D. The default VLAN ID can be changed.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
On Juniper switches, the default VLAN is set to a VLAN ID of 1 by default. This means that all interfaces on the switch are members of VLAN 1 until they are specifically assigned to another VLAN. Therefore, option A is correct. The default VLAN ID can be changed. This allows network administrators to configure the switch to use a different VLAN as the default, if necessary. Therefore, option D is correct.
NEW QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly describe RSTP port roles? (Choose two.)
A. The designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device.
B. The backup port is used as a backup for the root port.
C. The alternate port is a standby port for an edge port.
D. The root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), there are several port roles that determine the behavior of the port in the spanning tree.
– Option A suggests that the designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device. This is correct because the designated port is the port on a network segment that has the best path to the root bridge. It’s responsible for forwarding frames towards the root bridge and sending configuration messages into its segment.
– Option D suggests that the root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge. This is also correct because the root port is always the link directly connected to the root bridge, or the shortest path to the root bridge. It’s used to forward traffic towards the root bridge.
Therefore, options A and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION 8
A new network requires multiple topology support. You decide to use IS-IS in this situation. Which three protocol topologies are supported in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. IPsec
B. anycast
C. IPv6
D. multicast
E. IPv4
Answer: CDE
Explanation:
IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is a routing protocol that is designed to move information efficiently within a computer network. It supports multiple protocol topologies, including IPv4, IPv6, and multicast. Therefore, options C, E, and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION 9
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant trunk groups load-balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
B. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
C. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link.
D. Redundant trunk groups must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
Answer: BD
Explanation:
Redundant Trunk Groups (RTGs) on EX Series switches provide a simple solution for network recovery when a trunk port on a switch goes down. They are configured on the access switch and contain two links: a primary or active link, and a secondary link. Therefore, option B is correct because if the active link fails, the secondary link automatically starts forwarding data traffic without waiting for normal spanning-tree protocol convergence. Option D is also correct. In a typical enterprise network composed of distribution and access layers, RTGs are used where one Access switch is connected to two different uplink switches. This implies that RTGs must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
NEW QUESTION 10
Which two statements about BGP facilitate the prevention of routing loops between two autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
A. EBGP routers will append their AS number when advertising routes to their neighbors.
B. EBGP routers will only accept routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH.
C. EBGP routers will drop routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH.
D. EBGP routers will prepend their AS number when advertising routes to their neighbors.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is a protocol designed to exchange routing and reachability information among autonomous systems (AS) on the internet.
– Option A is correct. When an EBGP router advertises routes to its neighbors, it appends its AS number to the AS_PATH attribute. This is a key mechanism in BGP to prevent routing loops.
– Option C is correct. BGP has a built-in loop prevention mechanism whereby if a BGP router detects its own AS in the AS_PATH attribute, it will drop the prefix and will not continue to advertise it. This helps to prevent routing loops.
– Option B is incorrect. EBGP routers do not accept routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH. Instead, they drop such routes as part of the loop prevention mechanism.
– Option D is incorrect. While it’s true that EBGP routers append their AS number when advertising routes, they do not prepend their AS number. The term “prepend” in BGP usually refers to a technique used to influence path selection by artificially lengthening the AS_PATH.
NEW QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct about generated routes? (Choose two.)
A. Generated routes require a contributing route.
B. Generated routes show a next hop in the routing table.
C. Generated routes appear in the routing table as static routes.
D. Generated routes cannot be redistributed into dynamic routing protocols.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
– Option A is correct because generated routes require a contributing route. A contributing route is a route that matches the destination prefix of the generated route and has a valid next hop. A generated route is only installed in the routing table if there is at least one contributing route available. This ensures that the generated route is reachable and useful. If there is no contributing route, the generated route is not added to the routing table.
– Option B is correct because generated routes show a next hop in the routing table. A generated route inherits the next hop of its primary contributing route, which is the most preferred route among all the contributing routes. The next hop of the generated route can be either an IP address or an interface name, depending on the type of the contributing route. The next hop of the generated route can also be modified by a routing policy.
NEW QUESTION 12
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant trunk groups use spanning tree to provide loop-free redundant uplinks.
B. Redundant trunk groups load balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
C. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link.
D. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
– Option C is correct because Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link of a redundant trunk group (RTG) on EX Series switches. Layer 2 control traffic includes protocols such as LLDP, LACP, and STP, which are used to exchange information and coordinate actions between switches. According to the Juniper Networks documentation, Layer 2 control traffic is allowed to pass through both the active and the secondary links of an RTG, but data traffic is only forwarded through the active link. This allows the switches to maintain their Layer 2 adjacencies and monitor the link status on both links.
– Option D is correct because if the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over in an RTG on EX Series switches. An RTG consists of two trunk links: an active or primary link, and a secondary or backup link. The active link is used to forward data traffic, while the secondary link is in standby mode. If the active link fails or becomes unavailable, the secondary link immediately transitions to a forwarding state and takes over the data traffic without waiting for normal STP convergence. This provides fast recovery and redundancy for the network.
NEW QUESTION 13
You want to ensure traffic is routed through a GRE tunnel. In this scenario, which two statements will satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Tunnel endpoints must have a route that directs traffic into the tunnel.
B. All intermediary devices must have a route to the tunnel endpoints.
C. Keepalives must be used on stateless tunneling protocols.
D. BFD must be used on the stateless tunneling protocols.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
– Option A is correct. For traffic to be sent through a GRE tunnel, there must be a route that directs the traffic into the tunnel. This is typically accomplished through the use of a static route or a dynamic routing protocol.
– Option B is correct. All intermediary devices must have a route to the tunnel endpoints. In real-world scenarios, the tunnel endpoints for a tunnel going over the Internet must have globally reachable internet addresses. Otherwise, intermediate routers in the Internet cannot forward the tunneled packets.
NEW QUESTION 14
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?
A. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
B. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.
C. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
D. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
Answer: A
Explanation:
– Option A is correct. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches. On EX2200, EX3200, EX3300, EX4200, and EX6200 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control for broadcast and unknown unicast traffic on all switch interfaces. On EX4300 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control on all Layer 2 switch interfaces.
– Option B is incorrect. The storm control feature does not require a special license on EX Series switches.
– Option C is incorrect. There’s no information available that suggests the storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
– Option D is incorrect. The storm control configuration applies to traffic at the ingress of an interface, not just between the forwarding and control plane.
NEW QUESTION 15
What are two reasons for creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. to reduce the convergence time
B. to increase the number of adjacencies in the backbone
C. to increase the size of the LSDB
D. to reduce LSA flooding across the network
Answer: AD
Explanation:
– Option A is correct. Creating multiple areas in OSPF can help to reduce the convergence time. This is because changes in one area do not affect other areas, so fewer routers need to run the SPF algorithm in response to a change.
– Option D is correct. Creating multiple areas in OSPF can help to reduce Link State Advertisement (LSA) flooding across the network. This is because LSAs are not flooded out of their area of origin.
NEW QUESTION 16
You are an operator for a network running 1S-IS. Two routers are failing to form an adjacency. What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. There are mismatched router IDs on the L2 routers.
B. There is no configured ISO address on any IS-IS interface.
C. There is a mismatched area ID between the L2 routers.
D. The family iso configuration is missing from the adjacency interface.
Answer: BD
Explanation:
The two reasons for the failure to form an adjacency in a network running IS-IS could be:
1. There is no configured ISO address on any IS-IS interface. IS-IS requires each router interface to have an ISO address configured. Without this address, the routers cannot form an adjacency. (Option B)
2. The family iso configuration is missing from the adjacency interface. The ‘family iso’ configuration is essential for IS-IS to function correctly. If this configuration is missing from the adjacency interface, it could prevent the formation of an adjacency. These explanations are based on the Enterprise Routing and Switching Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) documents and learning resources available at Juniper Networks. (Option D)
NEW QUESTION 17
Which statement about aggregate routes is correct?
A. Aggregate routes can only be used for static routing but not for dynamic routing protocols.
B. Aggregate routes are automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table.
C. Aggregate routes are always preferred over more specific routes, even when the specific routes have a better path.
D. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes. They help minimize the number of routing tables in an IP network by consolidating selected multiple routes into a single route advertisement. This approach is in contrast to non-aggregation routing, in which every routing table contains a unique entry for each route. Therefore, option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are not correct because: Aggregate routes can be used with both static routing and dynamic routing protocols. Aggregate routes are not automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table. They need to be manually configured. Aggregate routes are not always preferred over more specific routes. The route selection process in Junos OS considers several factors, including route preference and metric, before determining the active route.
NEW QUESTION 18
You are receiving multiple BGP routes from an upstream neighbor and only want to advertise a single summarized prefix to your internal OSPF neighbors. This route should only be advertised when you are receiving these BGP routes from this neighbor. In this scenario, which type of route should you create?
A. aggregate route
B. static route using the resolve feature
C. generate route
D. static route using qualified next hops
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this scenario, you should create an aggregate route. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes. They help minimize the number of routing tables in an IP network by consolidating selected multiple routes into a single route advertisement. This approach is in contrast to non-aggregation routing, in which every routing table contains a unique entry for each route. Therefore, option A is correct.
Options B, C, and D are not correct because:
– Static route using the resolve feature: This type of route uses the resolve feature to install a static route in the routing table only if a specific condition is met. However, it does not provide the capability to summarize multiple routes into a single prefix.
– Generate route: This type of route generates a route that is always present in the routing table and can be used to summarize routes. However, it does not have the capability to only advertise the route when specific BGP routes are being received from a neighbor.
– Static route using qualified next hops: This type of route allows for the specification of multiple next-hop addresses for a static route. However, it does not provide the capability to summarize multiple routes into a single prefix.
NEW QUESTION 19
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